John 14:6
λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς Ἐγώ εἰμι ἡ ὁδὸς καὶ ἡ ἀλήθεια καὶ ἡ ζωή· οὐδεὶς ἔρχεται πρὸς τὸν πατέρα εἰ μὴ δι' ἐμοῦ
Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.
Jesus said to him, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."
Jesús le dice: Yo soy el camino, y la verdad, y la vida; nadie viene al Padre, sino por mí.
All four of the above Bible quotations agree; they say the same thing and can all be identified as the inspired Word of God. If a translation came out in English with something like "Jesus saith unto him, I am a way, a truth, and a life: all can come to the Father by me" then we have a problem because it has a different meaning. But the quotations above from Greek, KJV, modern English and Spanish all mean the same thing.
Interestingly, both English translations leave out one of the καὶ/and. Is this taking away from the Word of God as mentioned in Revelation 22? I don't think so; it is just saying the sentence the way we would say it in English, the other "and" would be considered kind of redundant.
My point with the above four quotes: Regardless of the language used, they say and mean the same thing. If we can't agree that the two English quotes and the Spanish quote are each the Word of God, then perhaps we shouldn't be translating the Bible into other languages.
Perhaps there is a lesson in there somewhere for both the KJV-Only Extremists and the Anti-KJV-ists to take to heart.
* Part One
* Part Two
* Part Three
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