Jesus and Joshua, Hebrews 4:8

For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. Hebrews 4:8

There are legitimate discussions to be had about the King James translation. Despite all the armaments arrayed against it, it is still the Standard. There must be discussions about it, because it is the Bible to which all comers compare themselves, either positively, negatively, or both. This is inevitable, and should be understood without running to exasperation. However, some of the distractions are so wearisome, and border on the weirdly lunatic fringe of animus toward the King James translation – even when the detractors are otherwise very intelligent and educated people. The admin at “Dust Off The Bible” is one such example, being an M.Div seminary graduate who writes well. Yet he comes up with some real whoppers, such as complaining about the KJV translators using a “J” for Jehovah and Jesus. He apparently never bothered to check an original printing, which does not have a letter “J” (what some mistake for a “J” is a blackletter capital “I”). Jehovah is Iehovah and Jesus is Iesus.

Here he comes again this time with an imagined Translation Error In The King James Version: Hebrews 4:8 (Jesus or Joshua?). Introducing the essay, he writes, “The Greek text clearly has the name Ἰησοῦς (Iesous)...” Seems there should not be much to say about translation after that. The rest should be exegesis and interpretation. But no.

The translators are translating Greek. The KJV Old Testament names from Hebrew and New Testament names from Greek reflect that difference. For example, Elijah vs. Elias/ηλιας, Elisha vs. Eliseus/ελισσαιου, Isaiah vs. Esaias/ησαιας, Jonah vs. Jonas/ιωνας (and, of course, Joshua vs. Jesus). You think they should have standardized the spellings? Fine, but be honest, that is not the same as a mistranslation!

The simple fact is the name is correctly over from the Greek in an English language and English Bible that has a history. You do not like it? Get over it. Here is some of the history of the spelling in the Bibles leading up to 1611.

• 1526 Tyndale - Iosue v. 8, Iesus v. 14 (This is chapter 5, “verse 1” in Tyndale)
• 1535 Coverdale - Iosua v. 8, Iesus (v. 14 = 5:1)
• 1537 Matthew - Iosue v. 8, Iesus (v. 14 = 5:1)
• 1539 Taverner - Iosue v. 8, Iesus (v. 14 = 5:1)
• 1540 Great - Iosue v. 8, Iesus (v. 14 moved to 4th chapter)
• 1541 Great Bible - Iosua v. 8, Iesus v. 14
• 1557 Geneva NT - Iosue v. 8, Iesus v. 14
• 1560 Geneva Bible - Iesus v. 8, Iesus v. 14 (v. 8 has note, “Meaning Ioshua”)
• 1568 Bishops - Iesus v. 8, Iesus v. 14 (v. 8 note says, “By Iesus, is meant Iosua”)
• 1602 Bishops - Iesus v. 8, Iesus v. 14 (v. 8 has note, “By Iesus, is meant Iosua”)
• 1611 KJV - Iesus v. 8, Iesus v. 14 (v. 8 has note, “That is, Josuah”)

Here is how the names appear in Greek:

• Hebrews 4:8 ει γαρ αυτους ιησους κατεπαυσεν ουκ αν περι αλλης ελαλει μετα ταυτα ημερας
• Hebrews 4:14 εχοντες ουν αρχιερεα μεγαν διεληλυθοτα τους ουρανους ιησουν τον υιον του θεου κρατωμεν της ομολογιας

The spelling difference ιησους vs. ιησουν is related to the case, nominative (subject) versus accusative (object). See 6:20, where the Greek spelling for “Iesus” the Christ is the same as 4:8 for Joshua. 6:20 οπου προδρομος υπερ ημων εισηλθεν ιησους κατα την ταξιν μελχισεδεκ αρχιερευς γενομενος εις τον αιωνα.

Looking over these historical samples, it is evident that (1), the Greek spelling for the Old Testament successor of Moses and the New Testament Messiah is the same; and (2) the English spelling reflecting that sameness appears in other Bibles, and was changed by the Reformers at Geneva from what had been in previous Bibles to standardize the Greek word which was the same in both places, with the addition of a note of explanation.

The 1885 English Revised Version changed the name in verse 8 to Joshua (with the note, “Gr. Jesus”) and has Jesus in verse 14. 

Nothing sinister or stupid is going on with the name “Jesus” in the King James Bible. A little research is good for what ails ya.